MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) : SEND

A 27-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of amenorrhoea and low mood. She complained of headaches but no visual disturbance. Her past medical history included anorexia nervosa but her current weight was stable.
On examination, her body mass index was 20.2 kg/m2 (18-25). Routine physical examination was normal and there was no galactorrhoea. Visual fields were full to confrontation.
Investigations:
serum cortisol (09.00 h)320 nmol/L (200-700)
short tetracosactide (Synacthen@) test (250 micrograms): serum cortisol (30 min after tetracosactide)630 nmol/L (>550) serum oestradiol200 pmol/L (200-400) plasma follicle-stimulating hormone2 U/L (2.5-10.0) plasma luteinising hormone4 U/L (2.5-10.0)
serum prolactin1001 mU/L (<360) serum free T418.0 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
serum ?-human chorionic gonadotropin<5 U/L (<5)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

• A. encourage weight gain and reassess after 2 months
• B. start cabergoline 0.5 mg/week
• C. ultrasound scan of ovaries
• D. MR scan of pituitary
• E. pregnancy test

A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with foot swelling and discomfort. He had a peripheral sensory neuropathy attributed to diabetes mellitus. A midfoot Charcot's arthropathy was suspected, and a plain X-ray was arranged (see image).

Which is the talonavicular joint?

• A. 4
• B. 1
• C. 3
• D. 2
• E. 5

A 24-year-old man was referred for investigation of infertility. He had been having unprotected intercourse with his partner for 18 months, but the couple had failed to conceive. He had been treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma at the age of 17.
What is the most appropriate investigation?

• A. serum testosterone
• B. serum inhibin
• C. semen analysis
• D. testicular biopsy
• E. serum follicle-stimulating hormone

A 30-year-old man was reviewed in the diabetes clinic. He had type 1 diabetes mellitus of 6 months' duration, treated with subcutaneous insulin in a basal bolus regimen (short-acting insulin three times daily; long-acting insulin once daily).
Investigations:
haemoglobin A1c52 mmol/mol (20-42)
At what arterialised venous blood glucose threshold would a patient typically expect to develop neuroglycopenic symptoms?

• A. 3.5-3.9 mmol/L
• B. 3.1-3.4 mmol/L
• C. <2.3 mmol/L
• D. 2.7-3.0 mmol/L
• E. 2.3-2.6 mmol/L

An 18-year-old woman was referred by her general practitioner for further investigation of "funny turns" during which she developed palpitations, sweating, tremor, hunger, anxiety and paraesthesiae; all of these symptoms were relieved immediately by a sugary drink. She was otherwise well and was not taking any regular medication. There was a family history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. A spontaneous hypoglycaemic episode had not been captured and she was admitted to the diabetes/endocrine ward for a 72-hour fast. Her renal function was normal.
After a 12-hour fast she experienced her typical symptoms. Urinalysis showed no urinary ketones.
Investigations after 12-h fast:
fasting plasma glucose 2.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
plasma insulin56 pmol/L (<21 after hypoglycaemia)
serum C-peptide514 pmol/L (180-360)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

• A. request a urinary sulphonylurea screen on sample obtained during the fast
• B. MR scan of abdomen and pelvis to localise a mesenchymal tumour producing insulin-like growth factor 2
• C. MR scan of pancreas to localise an insulinoma
• D. coeliac axis angiography
• E. obtain a careful history looking for access to exogenous insulin